JUDICIAL EXAM: June 2015

Tuesday 30 June 2015

THE PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT

THE PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT Please go to to view the test

1. medical examination of child against whom offence has been committed shall be conducted according to ?

c. section 164A of CRPC
d. the rule 21 of medical jurispudence
a. procedure laid down by court
b. section 28 of the act

section 27 of this act

2. Consent date of PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT, 2012 ?

c. 20 june 2013
a. 19 june 2012
d. 13 april 2012
b. 1 april 2012

3. monitering of implementation of act is provider under section ……. of THE PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT 2012 ?

4. penetrative sexual assault is defined under section …. of the act ?

b. section 4
d. section 6
a. section 3
c. section 5

5. Provision that legal service authority shall provide a lawyer to child if , if unable to afford a legal counsel– is provided under section ?

6. section 40 of THE PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT 2012 provides ?

b. alteration of punishment
d. Power to make Rulles
c. public awareness about act
a. Right of child to take legal assistence

7. punishment for abatement and attempt to commit an offence is provided under section …… of THE PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT 2012 ?

a. section 17 & 18
c. section 18
b. section 17
d. section 44

8. Consent date of PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT, 2012 ?

c. 20 june 2013
b. 1 april 2012
d. 13 april 2012
a. 19 june 2012

9. under the PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT, 2012 ?

a. trial to be conducted in camara
c. trial to be conducted in presence of person upon whom child has trust or confidence
b. trial to be conducted in presence of parents of the child
d. all of the above

section 37

10. child is defined under section ….. of the PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT, 2012 ?

C. 2 (1) (C)
B. 2 (1) (b)
D. 2 (1) (d)
A. 2 (1) (a)

11. PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT, 2012 contains ?

b. 46 section and 9 chapter and 1 schedule
c. 461section and 7 chapter
a. 46 section and 9 chapter
d. 41 section and 7 chapter and 1 schedule

12. According to PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT, 2012, child means ?

c. any person below the age of 16 year
d. female below & 16, male 18
a. any person below the age of 18 year
b. male below16 & female 18 year

13. according to THE PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT 2012 , What is the Punishment for any person, who failure to report or record a case ?

c. 6 month to 2 year + fine
a. 6month / fine / both
b. 1 year + fine
d. 3 year / fine / both

section 21 (1)

14. Who moniter the implementation of THE PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT 2012 ?

central govt
special court
national and state commission for protection of child rights
state govt

section 44

15. sexual assault is defined under section …. of the PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT, 2012?

b. section 7
a, section 6
d. section 9
c. section 8

16. offences under PROTECTION OF CHILDREN FROM SEXUAL OFFENCE ACT, 2012 is triable by ?

a. judicial magistrate of first class
d. special juvenile court
b. judicial magistrate of first class and metropolitan magistrate
c, special court

Friday 26 June 2015

Motor Vehicle Act (test)

Motor Vehicle Act (test) Please go to to view the test

1. Who can’t file an application for compensation under section 166 Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 ?

a. who sustain bodily injury
b. owner of the property damaged
c. legal representative of the deciesed
d. owner of the offending vehicle

2. What should be deductible for determination of just compensation in death case under the Motor Vehicle Act. 1988 –

a. The amount paid by the L1C
b. The amount paid by employer as gratuity and leave encashment
c. The amount paid as esgratia
d.The amount which would have be spent by deceased had he been alive

3. Which section of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides for wearing of Protective Head Gear?

a. Section 112
b. Section 113
c. Section 129
d. Section 185

4. Under which provision of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988, claimant shall not be required to establish the wrongful act or negligence’ on the part of the Vehicle or owner of the Vehicle or any other person?

a. Section 163A
b. Section 165
c. Section 166A
d. Section 170A

5. Under which section of the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 a person can be punished for contravention of any provision, rule, regulation or notification for which no penalty is provided elsewhere ?

a. Section 184
b. Section 177
c. Section 178
d. Section 192

6. Under which Section of Motor Vehicle Act, 1988, liability to pay compensation by the Pnncinle of “No fault liabilitv” is nrovided ?

a. sec 166
b. sec 147
c. sec 140
d. sec 145

7. Looking to the Provision of Motor Vehicle Act, 1988. whether a person below the age of 16 years can drive a vehicle at a public place ?

a. Yes
b. no
c. Can drive moped
d. Can drive only motorcycle up to 50cc

8. Within what period from the accident a claim petition can be filed under Motor Vehicle Act,1988 ?

a. No limitation is prescribed
b. 1 Year
c. 3 Year
d. 6 Year

9. Under Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 on the principle of no fault liability the amount payable in respect of the death of any person shall not be less than –

a. 25000
b. 50000
c. 75000
d. 100000

Protection of Women from Demestic Violence Act 2005 (test)

Protection of Women from Demestic Violence Act 2005 (test) Please go to to view the test

1. In cases pertaining to protection of Women from Domestic Voilence Act 2005 an appeal shall lie after how many days from the date on which the order made by the Magistrate is served on the aggrieved person –

a, 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 9O days

2. Under which section of Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005 Magistrate passes residence order –

a. Under Section 15
b. Under Section 16
c. Under Section 17
d. Under Section 19

3. Which shall be a competent Court to try the cases pertaining to Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005

a. Family Court
b. The Court of District Magistrate
c. The Court of JMFC
d. The Court of Special Judge

4. What is provided in sec. 36 of Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 ?

a. act not in derogation of other law
b. protection of action taken in good faith
c. cognizance of offence committed by protection officer
d. penalty for not discharging duty by protection officer

5. By which form a complaint can be made under Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?

a. Only Oral statement
b. Only Written statement
c. a & b both
d. None of these

Civil Procedure Code 1908 (Test)

Civil Procedure Code 1908 (Test) Please go to to view the test

1. A residing in Dehradun, beats B in Lucknow. B may sue A under C.P.C

(a) either in Lucknow or in Dehradun
(b) only in Lucknow
(c) only in Dehradun
(d) anywhere else

2. Under C.P.C. the provision of notice before instituting a suit against the Government is given in

(a) Section 180
(b) Section 6
(c) Section 80
(d) Section 21

3. The Sections in the Code of Civil Procedure can be amended by

(a) the Parliament
(b) a High Court
(c) the Court hearing the suit
(d) the parties to the suit

4. The duration of existence of a Caveat filed under Code of Civil Procedure 1908 is

a) 60 days from the date on which it was filed
(b) 30 days from the date on which it was lodged
(c) 120 days from the date when it was lodged
(d) 90 days from the date, when it was lodged

5. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, the Collector may be appointed as receiver?

(a) Order XL Rule 5
(b) Order XLI Rule 1
(c) Order XL Rule 2
(d) Order XLI Rule 2

6. A receiver is an

(a) officer of the court
(b) agent of the plaintiff
c) agent of the defendant
(d) agent of the parties to the suit

7. Section 115 of the Civil Procedure Code provides provision for the following:

(a) Reference
(b) Review
(c) Revision
(d) Appeal to the Supreme Court

8. Judgement under Section 2(9) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 means

(a) a decree
(b) dismissal of appeal summarily
(c) statement of grounds of an order or decree
(d) All the above

9. Inherent powers of the court can be exercised under C.P.C.

(a) for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court
(b) to help the plaintiff
(c) to help the defendant
(d) to grant interim relief

10. Which one of the following is NOT a suit of civil nature ?

(a) Suit relating to rights of worship
(b) Suit involving purely religious rights
(c) Suit for rent
(d) Suit for rights to hereditary office

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Constitution Of India (Test)

Constitution Of India (Test) Please go to to view the test

1. Which of the following is not mentioned in the Indian Constitution ?

(a) Election Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Planning Commission
d) Union Public Service Commission

2. By which Constitutional Amendment the number of ministers have been limited to 15% of

(a) Ninety First Amendment
(b) Ninety Second Amendment
(c) Ninetieth Amendment
(d) None of the above

3. A Member of Parliament of India or Member of Legislative Assembly of a State cannot be arrested in a civil action within a period of _______ before or after the session.

(a) 40 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 50 day
(d) 55 days

4. In which among the following States in India, Legislative Council does not exist ?

(a) State of Bihar
(b) State of Maharashtra
(c) State of Rajasthan
(d) State of Karnataka

5. The readjustment of current strength of the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies in India has been freezed upto

(a) year 2026
b) year 2016
(c) year 2018
(d) year 2020

6. Balaji Raghwan V/s Union of India AIR 1996 SC 770 is related with which of the following Article of the Constitution of India ?

(a) 25
(b) 29
(c) 18
(d) 12

7. Article 239 AB of the Constitution provides

(a) Power of administrator to promulgate ordinances during recess of legislature.
b) Power of the President to make regulations for certain Union Territories
(c) Provision in case of failure of constitutional machinery of National Capital Territory.
(d) None of the above

8. Article 371 E of the Constitution deals with

(a) Establishment of Central University in Andhra Pradesh
(b) Special provisions with respect to the State of Sikkim
(c) Special provision with respect to State of Mizoram
(d) None of the above

9. Medha Kotwal Lele V/s Union of India 2012 S.C. is related with

(a) Mercy Killing
(b) Sexual Harassment of Women at work place
(c) Domestic violence
(d) Fake encounter

10. Which of the following case is associated with the issue of ‘domicile’ in the State concerned for getting elected to the Council of States ?

(a) Rameshwar Prasad V/s Union of India
(b) Kuldip Nayar V/s Union of India
(c) S.R. Bommai V/s Union of India
(d) Satwant Singh V/s Asst. Passport Officer

11. In which Article of the Constitution of India, provision has been made for “Finance Commission” ?

(a) 366 (12)
(b) 280
(c) 265
(d) None of the above

12. ‘Full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State,’ is provided under which Article of the Constitution of India ?

(a) Article 261
(b) Article 260
(c) Article 32 (3) and Article 226 (3)
(d) Article 226 (2)

13. Which one of the following cases is not related with Article 19 (1) of the Indian Constitution ?

(a) Prakash Jha International Ltd. V/s Union of India
(b) Secretary, Ministry of I & B V/s C.A.B
(c) Communist Party of India V/s Bharat Kumar
(d) Kathi Ranning V/s State of Saurashtra

14. Under Article 338A of the Indian Constitution ‘There shall be a Commission known as _________’.

(a) National Commission for Women
(b) National Commission for Minorities
(c) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(d) None of the above

15. Article 15(5) was declared as the ‘basic structure’ of Indian Constitution in which of the following case by the Supreme Court ?

a) Ashok Kumar Thakur V/s Union of India
(b) Indian Medical Association V/s Union of India
(c) Bachpan Bachao Andolan V/s Union of India
(d) All of the above

16.

Untouchability in any form has been abolished by which of the following articles of Constitution of India ?

(a) Article 14
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 15

17. Under the Constitution of India all aspects of family law are provided in the

a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) None of the above

18. The power of Judicial Review in India is possessed by

(a) Supreme Court alone
(b) By all Courts
(c) Supreme Court as well as High Courts
(d) None of the Courts

19. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bill for a period of

(a) 14 days
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) None of the above

20. Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by

(a) Article 15(4) of the Constitution
(b) Article 16(4) of the Constitution
(c) Article 29(2) of the Constitution
(d) Article 14 of the Constitution

21. The Indian Constitution is dedicated to

(a) The Constituent Assembly
(b) The Parliament
(c) The whole society
(d) The people of India

22. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the anti-defection provision of the Constitution?

(a) 51st Amendment
(b) 52nd Amendment
(c) 53rd Amendment
(d) 54th Amendment

23. The word, “secular” used in the Preamble of the Constitution of India means

(a) The State has no religion of its own
(b) All religions are treated equally.
(c) The State has no common religion.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct

24. Twelfth Schedule was added to the Constitution by

(a) 74th Amendment
(b) 73rd Amendment
(c) 65th Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment

25. The 44th Constitutional Amendment 1978 was

(a) Amended Article 32
(b) Deleted Article 31 and introduced Article 300A
(c) Deleted Article 32 from Part III of the Constitution.
(d) Introduced a new Article 300 in the Constitution.

26. In Re Berubari and Exchange of Enclaves the Supreme Court held that

(a) Rule of law is a part of Constitution
(a) Rule of law is not a part of Constitution
(c) Preamble is not a part of Constitution
(d) Preamble is a part of Constitution

27.

How many types of writ can the Supreme Court issue for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

(a) Six
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Three

28. State Executive power is vested with

(a) Chief Minister
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Chief Minister and Council of Ministers
(d) Governor

29. “Prime Minister” itself is a separate class.” This was laid down in

(a) Ram Prasad v. State of Bihar
(b) R.K. Garg v. Union of India
(c) State of M.P. v. G.C. Mandavar
(d) P.V. Shastri v. Union of India

30. “Prime Minister” itself is a separate class.” This was laid down in

(a) Ram Prasad v. State of Bihar
(b) R.K. Garg v. Union of India
(c) State of M.P. v. G.C. Mandavar
(d) P.V. Shastri v. Union of India

31. Who can constitute the State Administrative Tribunal under the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985?

(a) President of India
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Parliament
(d) Concerned State Government

32. Which one of the following is not a case relating to doctrine of precedent?

(a) Saijan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(b) Prakash Chand Pathak v. State of U.P.
(c) Liversidge v. Anderson
(d) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of Bihar

33. Which one of the following is not a case relating to doctrine of precedent?

(a) Saijan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
(b) Prakash Chand Pathak v. State of U.P.
(c) Liversidge v. Anderson
(d) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of Bihar

34. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court over-ruled its own precedent for, the first time?

(a) Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(c) Bengal Immunity Co. v. State of Bihar
(d) Keshav Mills Co. v. Income-tax Commissioner.

JUDICIAL EXAMS

Tuesday 30 June 2015

Friday 26 June 2015